I was surprised while reading this recent article on AT-1001.
http://www.celiac.com/st_prod.html?p_prodid=1514To me, it's very clear that the drug treats leaky-gut, not celiac.
The only way they can be thought of as clinically equivalent is if it were 100% IMPOSSIBLE to have ANY adverse effect from celiac while the intestinal wall's permeability is 'normal'.
It seems unlikely to me, tho I admit I have nowhere near the depth of knowledge to debate it w/ a Dr @ Alba.
BUT!!! . .. .. ..if it *were* true, why isn't it publicized to the point that every celiac is aware of it and taking steps to treat leaky-gut. Yes, some or many are aware, but if the drug's celiac "treatment" is entirely leaky-gut related, shouldn't it be at least as well-known as the fact that rye has a harmful gluten?